Nursing Transition to Practice Test 2 Practice

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• SBAR stands for which set of terms?
• What is standard adult urine output per hour?
• What does FAST indicate in stroke assessment?
• What is the most reliable method to confirm a patient understands discharge instructions?
• When educating the client about discharge, what should the education include?
• A patient reports severe pain despite usual analgesia. What is your next step?
• What is the meaning of 'first medical contact' in STEMI care?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six rights of medication administration?
• What is a key nursing intervention to prevent IV infiltration?
• If a patient has had lymph node removal, which limb should be avoided for IV placement?
• What is the purpose of an enteral or nasogastric tube in postoperative care?
• Which option is NOT one of the five rights of delegation?
• Which approach is most effective for clarifying patient concerns when a patient seems anxious?
• Which actions are recommended immediately when a transfusion reaction is suspected?
• What is a key outcome of effective discharge education?
• After the transfusion has started, how long should you stay with the patient?
• Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction is typically characterized by which symptom?
• Which statement describes an IV complication not listed in the material?
• What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
• What is the best practice to prevent CLABSI/CAUTI in hospitalized patients?
• Which statement best describes essential seizure precautions in inpatient care?
• What PPE is required for contact isolation?
• Why is double-checking weight-based dosing with another clinician recommended?
• What are key components of a suicide risk assessment?
• Which action is appropriate to maintain sterility during sterile technique?
• During a suspected transfusion reaction, what is the recommended approach to IV access?
• What is the target reperfusion timeframe for STEMI management when PCI is available?
• Which fetal monitoring pattern indicates distress?
• Which initial treatment is appropriate for a conscious patient with suspected hypoglycemia?
• Which statement about postpartum hemorrhage risk factors is true?
• Which combination best describes common contributors to acute kidney injury in hospitalized patients?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
• Peripheral IVs should be flushed every how many hours?
• Which lab value is commonly used alongside INR to monitor warfarin therapy?
• During the primary survey, which component is evaluated first?
• Which outcome is associated with using teach-back in patient education?
• Why should you avoid assigning blame when documenting a medication error?
• In discharge planning, which action best ensures patient-centered care?
• Which step assesses the effectiveness of discharge education?
• Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is most directly associated with which finding?
• If a transfusion reaction is suspected, what should be done with the remaining blood product and tubing?
• Implanted port is used for?
• Which triage class is the highest priority with life-threatening injuries?
• If cellulitis occurs with IV therapy, what is the recommended action?
• Which is the first sign of an allergic reaction to a medication?
• Which sequence correctly describes vital signs monitoring during a transfusion?
• In COPD patients, what SpO2 range is generally targeted to avoid CO2 retention?
• Which electrolyte abnormality is common with diuretic therapy and can cause confusion?
• Which is NOT a component of the SMART framework?
• Provide an example of professional boundary violation.
• Which measures reduce risk of transfusion reactions?
• During the transfusion, how frequently should vital signs be monitored in the first 15 minutes?
• Distinguish DNR from DNI.
• In emergency triage using the ABC approach, which patient should be seen first?
• The directive 'Within thirty minutes' applies to which step?
• SBAR stands for what in structured handoff communication?
• Which finding is not consistent with fluid volume deficit?
• During the primary survey, exposure refers to which action?
• What is the normal sinus rhythm range for adults?
• A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.0 with no bleeding. What is your immediate nursing action?
• Which fetal heart rate pattern is considered non-reassuring and indicates distress?
• If signs of fluid volume overload are present, what should you do?
• How should informed consent be handled when a language barrier exists?
• Disability in the ABCDE approach refers to the assessment of what?
• Which is an example of maintaining professional boundaries?
• Which triage class describes minor injuries?
• In discharge planning, what is the purpose of listening to the client's goals and preferences?
• In metabolic acidosis, what happens to PaCO2 as compensation progresses?
• What is the primary purpose of a time-out before a procedure?
• How should you handle a patient requesting hospice referral?
• Which statement about a hemolytic transfusion reaction is true?
• Which electrolyte imbalance can cause peaked T waves on ECG?
• If the plan was to give two units but the guideline says otherwise, what is the recommended initial approach?
• When providing discharge instructions, which statement best ensures understanding?
• A nurse calculates net fluid balance as intake minus output; what does a negative net balance indicate?
• What should a nurse do if a patient requests changes to care without the provider’s input?
• Which lab value is used to monitor warfarin therapy?
• What does PICO stand for?
• Why is accurate nursing documentation legally important?
• The brown or red lumen is the largest lumen; use this to draw blood.
• Which elements comprise therapeutic communication in nursing practice?
• Which principle supports including the patient and caregivers in the discharge plan?
• How long is blood transfusion tubing considered usable after it has been hung?
• In responding to a suspected anaphylactic reaction, which sequence of actions is recommended?
• How do you document a medication administration error?
• SBAR is commonly used to communicate with which healthcare professional?
• Which of the following describes the proper practice when administering high-alert medications to prevent errors?
• How often should the IV site be checked?
• A 1000 mL IV bag is to be infused over 8 hours using a macrodrip set of 15 gtt/mL. What is the required IV rate in mL/hr and gtt/min?
• To confirm placement of a midline catheter, which imaging is used?
• Which action is appropriate to maintain sterility during sterile technique?
• If an allergic reaction progresses without treatment, what could occur?
• Which practice is most effective at preventing infection?
• What is the role of crossmatching in transfusion safety?
• Transfusion-related acute lung injury presents with which finding?
• Which statement best describes listening to the client's goals and preferences?
• What is a common early sign of hypoglycemia in adults and the immediate action?
• Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHNS) typically occurs in which patient population and has what key features?
• A child weighs 18 kg. If the prescribed dose is 15 mg/kg per dose, what is the dose per administration?
• Which of the following is a correct step to maintain asepsis during wound dressing using sterile technique?
• Before clearing a patient for activity when there is unilateral weakness, what assessment is essential?
• How is clinical judgment defined in nursing practice?
• Which of the following is NOT an intervention to reduce fall risk for an elderly patient?
• What is a common cause of acute kidney injury in hospitalized patients?
• How should a MAR discrepancy be handled?
• Which statement about tunneled catheters is true according to the material?
• In nursing ethics, fidelity refers to which concept?
• Glass bottles used for certain IV solutions must be what before administration?
• In SMART objectives, which is the final component?
• Which medication is administered for anaphylaxis if indicated?
• Which statement best describes informed consent in nursing practice?
• How is intake and output tracked during a shift?
• Which ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
• In metabolic acidosis, what compensatory change occurs in ventilation?
• High-alert medications should be administered via infusion pump; which is an example?
• A patient with COPD exacerbation has a PaO2 of 58 mmHg on room air. What is the initial nursing intervention?
• What does the phrase '4 hours after hanging' refer to in transfusion tubing usage?
• Which statement best distinguishes DKA from Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHNS)?
• What is the two-person verification rule for high‑risk medications?
• Which isolation precaution is indicated for a patient with MRSA wound infection?
• What is the purpose of a structured handoff (SBAR) at shift change?
• What infections are screened in every donated unit of blood?
• If a patient has a fever of 100.4 F before starting a blood transfusion, what is the recommended action?
• When discussing test results during discharge, what is essential?
• Before hanging a blood product, what assessment should be performed?
• During a seizure management, which action is appropriate?
• For suspected myocardial infarction, what is the primary nursing action?
• What are the four steps of the Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle?
• The five key areas to discuss during discharge planning include medications, home life, warning signs, test results, and what?
• Name two infection-control practices critical in a hospital setting.
• A patient reports chest pain and diaphoresis. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
• In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level corresponds to Safety and Security?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of SBAR communication in healthcare handoffs?
• Air embolism is more common with which type of IV access?
• Platelet transfusions are given for thrombocytopenia; a commonly used threshold for transfusion is a platelet count below 20,000 per microliter.
• Plasma transfusion is given primarily to replace what?
• What is a sign of hypovolemia?
• Why is a double-check used for high-alert medications?
• Which component is NOT part of the five key areas to discuss at discharge?
• When replacing sodium, what neurologic activity should you monitor for?
• Which vitamin is produced by gut bacteria and is essential for coagulation?
• Which cast-care practice should be avoided?
• Which sign is associated with extravasation injuries?
• In the event of a medication administration error, which action should you avoid?
• Which of the following is one of the six rights of medication administration?
• In delegating to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs), what is essential?
• Which IV complication can be caused by sodium bicarbonate and phenergan?
• What is the normal neonatal heart rate range?
• In the ABCDE approach to initial patient assessment, which component is the third?
• In metabolic acidosis, which ABG pattern is expected?
• In SBAR communication, which component provides the recommended course of action?
• For a patient with a tracheostomy, what is a key nursing consideration?
• In the S, O, A, P framework, what does the O represent?
• Which statement about teach-back in discharge planning is true?
• What does SBAR stand for in healthcare communication?
• Which factor most influences a patient’s risk for pressure injury?
• Which approach is most effective for smoking cessation in brief clinical encounters?
• To prevent fluid volume overload, what medication can be given between transfusions?
• How should a nurse respond to a patient who cannot read?
• Which WBC differential finding most indicates infection?
• Which nursing diagnosis is often appropriate for an immobile patient?
• Which description best reflects central line dressing care?
• Why is ABO compatibility important in transfusion?
• In the event of hemorrhage, what does the material suggest about the transfusion rate?
• Informed consent for a patient who lacks decision-making capacity, what is appropriate?
• Which combination of agents is commonly implicated in causing extravasation injuries?
• At 2 L/min via nasal cannula, what is the approximate FiO2 delivered?
• If an adult's oral temperature is 101.0°F, this would be considered?
• For a patient with MRSA infection, which precautions are required to prevent transmission?
• Which findings suggest fluid volume deficit?
• Postop patient with absent bowel sounds and abdominal distension; what is your concern?
• Which practice best supports safe delegation to unlicensed assistive personnel?
• Self Actualization corresponds to which level in Maslow's hierarchy?
• Recognize signs of fat embolism syndrome.
• Which of the following is an early sign of sepsis in adults?
• A pediatric patient weighs 12 kg and is prescribed 20 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. What is the per-dose amount?
• Which is best practice for ensuring patients understand medication changes at discharge?
• How should discharge education be delivered to be effective?
• When drawing blood from the line, what should you do with the running medication?
• What is the primary purpose of screening donor blood for infectious diseases?
• Which dietary modification is commonly recommended to reduce the risk of kidney stone formation?
• Which vitamin is essential for coagulation and is produced by gut bacteria?
• How should a nurse respond to a suspected anaphylactic reaction?
• A patient has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is a critical nursing intervention?
• When blood is received, within how many minutes must it be hung?
• What is the primary purpose of pulse oximetry?
• In an emergency setting, which patient requires immediate assessment first due to symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction?
• What gauge size is appropriate for blood transfusions?
• In a transfusion, what triggers an immune transfusion reaction when donor red blood cells are incompatible with the recipient?
• Which lumen color is typically used to draw blood from a central line?
• Which lab value indicates risk of hyponatremia in a patient receiving diuretic therapy?
• Which team members should be involved in coordinating hospice referral?
• Which statement best describes reperfusion in STEMI?
• Which practice ensures safe weight-based dosing in pediatrics?
• During a code blue, what is the first priority?
• How often should IV dressings and tubing be changed for patients receiving transfusions?
• What is the recommended event when a neutropenic patient develops fever?
• What should be monitored at the IV site during a transfusion?
• Which symptoms indicate fluid volume overload?
• Which statement best describes the requirement during each transfusion?
• If patient develops flushing, itching, tachycardia during IV infusion, what should you do first?
• Which aspect does the Nurse Practice Act protect?
• What is the normal oral temperature range for an adult?
• A patient presents with systolic blood pressure 86 mmHg, tachycardia, and cool clammy skin after surgery. What is the immediate nursing action?
• If signs of fluid overload occur, what should you do?
• What is the single most effective measure to prevent infection?
• Define informed consent components.
• Identify two common risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage.
• Which of the following best describes signs of fluid overload?
• What should be assessed after discharge education to confirm understanding?
• In a patient who suddenly develops dyspnea with cyanosis and decreased SpO2, what is the first priority action?
• Which of the following is least likely to be included in an effective discharge plan?
• Which medication class is contraindicated in bradycardia or AV block?
• What is an appropriate approach to verify understanding of discharge instructions?
• Which option best describes the primary purpose of pulse oximetry?
• Which of the following is NOT a correct step to maintain asepsis during wound dressing using sterile technique?
• In Maslow's hierarchy, which level comes after Safety and Security?
• Which condition is a vein contraindication for IV insertion?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of a time-out before a procedure?
• In SBAR communication, which component provides the clinical assessment and analysis?
• When planning discharge, why is it important to involve both patient and caregivers?
• Central line care: Change dressing every seven days, or when visibly soiled or compromised.
• What sign is most indicative of phlebitis?
• If PCI is not available, within how many minutes should fibrinolysis be administered after first medical contact?
• Which of the following is among the six rights of medication administration?
• What should be included in an effective discharge plan?
• A tunneled catheter is usually used for how long?
• During the two-person verification, which elements are independently checked?
• What is the first action for a patient showing signs of anaphylaxis in a hospital setting?
• You observe a patient rhythm with a regular rhythm and occasional wide, bizarre early beats. What are these likely?
• What is teach-back and its purpose in patient education?
• Which statement about tunneled catheters is supported by the material?
• Which communication approaches support de-escalation in agitated patients?
• What should be done with sterile packages after expiration to maintain asepsis?
• Which of the following is a correct description of the site assessment during transfusion?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the SBAR handoff at shift change?
• Which statement accurately reflects the five key areas discussed in discharge planning?
• Which WBC differential pattern is most commonly associated with a bacterial infection?
• A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with tremors, sweating, and confusion after missing meals. What is the immediate management?
• During a transfusion reaction with symptoms appearing mid-transfusion, what is the immediate action?